This is a simple question. How are the transactions in the full backtest calculated? Are they the same as the buy/sell value?
Since I tried to clone the latest code from a topic about multi-factor long-short strategy, it seems that the transactions are quite huge compared to the total returns and portfolio values (even if the overall target percent is less than 1).
Why did those huge transactions happen? Because of the slippage cost and the leverage?
Logically, do these huge transactions make sense in reality?
If it does not, what restrictions should I put in to make it have more sense?